A 62-year-old woman is evaluated on postoperative day 6 following a right total knee arthroplasty. Since the surgery, she has been receiving subcutaneous unfractionated heparin for deep vein thrombosis prophylaxis. Today, she reports new-onset left calf pain and swelling.
Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination reveals left calf tenderness, erythema, and 2+ pitting edema up to the knee.
Laboratory studies on admission:
Hemoglobin: 13.2 g/dL
Leukocyte count: 8,500/mm³
Platelet count: 260,000/mm³
Laboratory studies today:
Hemoglobin: 12.8 g/dL
Leukocyte count: 9,200/mm³
Platelet count: 110,000/mm³
A duplex ultrasonography of the left lower extremity demonstrates a noncompressible popliteal vein. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Discontinue unfractionated heparin and initiate argatrobanCevap
- BDiscontinue unfractionated heparin and initiate warfarin
- CSwitch unfractionated heparin to enoxaparin
- DTransfuse irradiated pooled platelets
- EContinue unfractionated heparin and obtain a CT pulmonary angiogram