A 68-year-old man is evaluated for a new-onset fever on postoperative day 7 following an open anterior resection of the rectum for rectal adenocarcinoma. Over the past 12 hours, he has developed right-sided chest pain that worsens with deep inspiration, along with a mild, dry cough. His temperature is 38.9°C (102.0°F), blood pressure is 132/84 mm Hg, pulse is 114/min, and respirations are 22/min. Oxygen saturation is 93% on room air. His medical history includes heart failure with preserved ejection fraction and diet-controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus. Physical examination shows a normal jugular venous pressure. Lung auscultation is notable for a focal pleural friction rub in the right lower lung field, without crackles or wheezing. The abdomen is soft and non-distended; the midline surgical incision is well-approximated with no erythema, induration, or purulent drainage. The right calf is mildly edematous and tender to palpation compared to the left. Laboratory studies show a white blood cell count of 11,200/mm³. A chest radiograph demonstrates a peripheral, wedge-shaped opacity in the right lower lung zone and a small right-sided pleural effusion. There is no cardiomegaly. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Computed tomography angiography of the chestCevap
- BInitiation of intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam
- CTransthoracic echocardiography
- DIncentive spirometry and chest physiotherapy
- EComputed tomography scan of the abdomen and pelvis