A 64-year-old woman is evaluated on postoperative day 6 following an open partial gastrectomy for a refractory peptic ulcer. She complains of increasing pain at her surgical incision site and feeling feverish since yesterday. Her medical history includes type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension. Her temperature is 38.5°C (101.3°F), blood pressure is 135/85 mmHg, pulse is 98/min, and respiratory rate is 18/min. Oxygen saturation is 96% on room air. Lung auscultation reveals mild, scattered bibasilar crackles that clear with coughing. Cardiac examination is unremarkable. The abdomen is soft and non-distended, with normal active bowel sounds. Examination of the midline surgical incision reveals a 5-cm area at the inferior aspect that is exquisitely tender, erythematous, indurated, and fluctuant. There is no spontaneous drainage. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- AInitiate broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics and reassess in 24 hours
- BObtain blood cultures, a urine culture, and a chest radiograph
- Open the affected portion of the incision to allow for drainageCevap
- DInsert a nasogastric tube and maintain nothing-by-mouth status
- EAdminister intravenous furosemide and implement fluid restriction