A 46-year-old woman comes to the clinic to discuss the results of a recent breast biopsy. Two weeks ago, a routine screening mammogram revealed a new, 8-mm cluster of pleomorphic microcalcifications in the upper outer quadrant of her right breast. A stereotactic core needle biopsy was performed. The pathology report indicates atypical ductal hyperplasia and fibrocystic changes containing microcalcifications. The patient has no history of breast disease. Menarche was at age 12, and she is nulliparous. Her mother was diagnosed with breast cancer at age 55. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination reveals symmetrical breasts with no palpable masses, skin changes, nipple discharge, or axillary lymphadenopathy. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Needle-localized excisional biopsyCevap
- BRepeat screening mammography in 6 months
- CInitiation of tamoxifen therapy
- DUnilateral simple mastectomy
- EBilateral breast magnetic resonance imaging