An orthopedic surgery team is consulted regarding a post-operative complication in an 82-year-old male patient. The patient underwent an uncomplicated left hemiarthroplasty three days ago following a femoral neck fracture. His past medical history is significant for Parkinson disease, essential hypertension, and chronic kidney disease. Over the last 24 hours, the nursing staff reports that he has developed progressive, marked abdominal swelling and has not passed any flatus or stool. He complains of mild, generalized abdominal discomfort and nausea but has not vomited. His current pain management regimen includes scheduled acetaminophen and as-needed intravenous hydromorphone.
His temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), pulse is 92/min, blood pressure is 135/85 mm Hg, and respiratory rate is 16/min. Physical examination reveals a profoundly distended and tympanitic abdomen. Bowel sounds are diminished. There is mild, diffuse palpation tenderness, but no guarding, rigidity, or rebound tenderness is elicited. An upright plain radiograph of the abdomen demonstrates marked gaseous distension of the ascending colon and cecum, with the cecal diameter measuring 10.5 cm. The distal colon contains scattered air, and there is no evidence of pneumoperitoneum.
Which of the following represents the most appropriate initial intervention for this patient's current gastrointestinal presentation?
- Cessation of the current intravenous opioid and institution of supportive careCevap
- BIntravenous administration of neostigmine
- CEndoscopic decompression of the large intestine
- DUrgent exploratory laparotomy
- EInitiation of broad-spectrum intravenous antimicrobial therapy