During her sixth day of recovery following an open abdominal hysterectomy for symptomatic uterine fibroids, a 45-year-old woman develops a fever. The surgical procedure was uncomplicated, and her postoperative course has been otherwise unremarkable. She is currently ambulating in the ward and tolerating a solid diet. Her temperature is 38.8°C (101.8°F), blood pressure is 120/78 mmHg, and pulse is 96/min. The patient reports localized throbbing pain at her abdominal incision but denies dysuria, cough, or shortness of breath. Physical examination demonstrates a 12-cm lower midline incision. The inferior 4 centimeters of the wound are notably erythematous, indurated, and exquisitely tender. Gentle pressure applied adjacent to this area produces a small amount of thick, purulent discharge emerging from between the surgical staples. Auscultation of the lungs reveals clear breath sounds bilaterally. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient's current condition?
- Removal of the affected surgical staples and bedside wound packingCevap
- BInitiation of empiric intravenous vancomycin and cefepime
- CCross-sectional abdominal imaging with intravenous contrast
- DIntensive deep-breathing exercises and chest physiotherapy
- EUrinalysis, urine culture, and oral ciprofloxacin therapy