A -year-old woman is evaluated in the preoperative clinic days before a scheduled right total knee arthroplasty. She has a history of severe osteoarthritis and chronic urge incontinence, which has been stable on a scheduled voiding regimen. The patient reports no new symptoms and specifically denies dysuria, urinary frequency, suprapubic discomfort, or flank pain. Her current medications include acetaminophen and cholecalciferol. Vital signs are within normal limits, including a temperature of (). Physical examination shows severe right knee crepitus and limited range of motion. There is no costovertebral angle or suprapubic tenderness. Preoperative laboratory results are as follows:
Leukocyte count:
Hemoglobin: g/dL
Platelets:
Urinalysis:
Color: Yellow
Appearance: Cloudy
Specific gravity:
pH:
Leukocyte esterase: Positive
Nitrites: Positive
WBC: /hpf
Bacteria: Many
A urine culture grows CFU/mL of *Proteus mirabilis* that is susceptible to cefazolin, ceftriaxone, and ciprofloxacin. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient's urinary findings prior to surgery?
- AInitiate a -day course of oral ciprofloxacin to be completed prior to surgery
- BAdd a single dose of intravenous gentamicin in addition to standard surgical site prophylaxis
- CPostpone the surgery until a repeat urinalysis demonstrates resolution of pyuria
- Proceed with the scheduled surgery without directed urinary antimicrobial therapyCevap
- EPrescribe oral nitrofurantoin to begin on the morning of surgery and continue for days