A 9-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his parents due to a 3-day history of worsening left leg pain and fever. The parents report that he initially started limping but now refuses to bear any weight on the left leg. There is no history of recent trauma, tick bites, or travel. His temperature is 38.8°C (101.8°F), blood pressure is 105/65 mmHg, heart rate is 115/min, and respiratory rate is 18/min. On physical examination, the child is ill-appearing. There is exquisite point tenderness, localized warmth, and mild swelling over the proximal anterior aspect of the left tibia. Range of motion of the left knee and ankle is fully preserved and does not elicit pain. Laboratory studies reveal a leukocyte count of 15,500/mm³ (85% neutrophils), an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) of 65 mm/hr, and a C-reactive protein (CRP) level of 82 mg/L. Plain radiographs of the left tibia and knee show no obvious abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Obtain magnetic resonance imaging of the left lower extremityCevap
- BAdminister empiric intravenous vancomycin and ceftriaxone
- CDischarge home with a prescription for oral NSAIDs and close follow-up
- DTransport the patient for a computed tomography scan of the left tibia
- EApply a supportive splint and admit for non-weight-bearing observation