A 65-year-old man presents to the outpatient surgical clinic 6 days after undergoing an emergency laparotomy and omental patch repair for a perforated duodenal ulcer. He reports worsening, throbbing pain at his surgical site that began yesterday. His temperature is 38.2°C (100.8°F), blood pressure is 128/78 mm Hg, heart rate is 90/min, and respiratory rate is 14/min. Physical examination shows a midline abdominal incision closed with surgical staples. The inferior one-third of the incision is erythematous, indurated, and exquisitely tender to palpation. Thick, yellowish fluid is spontaneously draining from between two of the staples in this area. The remainder of the abdominal examination is unremarkable, with normal bowel sounds and no rebound tenderness. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- AOrder a computed tomography scan of the abdomen and pelvis
- BAdmit the patient for empiric intravenous broad-spectrum antibiotics
- Remove the surgical staples and open the involved portion of the incisionCevap
- DSwab the wound exudate for bacterial culture and prescribe oral antibiotics
- EPerform a duplex ultrasound of the lower extremities