A 58-year-old man is evaluated in the intensive care unit for ongoing antibiotic management. He was admitted 10 days ago following a severe traumatic brain injury that required mechanical ventilation. Five days ago, he developed a new fever of 38.9°C (102.0°F), increased purulent endotracheal secretions, and worsening oxygenation. A portable chest radiograph revealed a new right lower lobe infiltrate. He was empirically started on intravenous vancomycin and piperacillin-tazobactam for presumed ventilator-associated pneumonia. Today, the patient's temperature is 37.2°C (99.0°F), and his oxygen requirements have steadily decreased. A bronchoalveolar lavage culture obtained 48 hours ago has finalized, growing > CFU/mL of methicillin-susceptible *Staphylococcus aureus* (MSSA). Blood cultures drawn at the time of the fever remain sterile. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in pharmacotherapy?
- ADiscontinue piperacillin-tazobactam and continue intravenous vancomycin
- BDiscontinue vancomycin and continue intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam
- Discontinue vancomycin and piperacillin-tazobactam, and initiate intravenous cefazolinCevap
- DContinue both intravenous vancomycin and piperacillin-tazobactam
- EDiscontinue current antibiotics and initiate intravenous daptomycin