A 65-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by ambulance due to the sudden onset of severe, "tearing" chest pain radiating to his interscapular region that began hour ago. He also reports progressive, severe shortness of breath over the past minutes. His medical history is significant for hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and a -pack-year smoking history.
Vital signs are:
Blood pressure: mmHg in the right arm and mmHg in the left arm
Heart rate: /min
Respiratory rate: /min
SpO2: on room air
Physical examination reveals a diaphoretic, agitated patient in severe respiratory distress. Jugular venous distension is present at cm . Cardiac auscultation reveals tachycardia and a high-pitched, blowing, early diastolic murmur best heard at the right second intercostal space. Lung auscultation reveals diffuse bilateral crackles and prominent expiratory wheezes. The right radial pulse is bounding, while the left radial pulse is absent.
ECG shows sinus tachycardia and left ventricular hypertrophy with a strain pattern, but no ST-segment elevations.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- AComputed tomography angiography of the chest
- BIntravenous labetalol
- Bedside transesophageal echocardiographyCevap
- DInhaled albuterol and intravenous methylprednisolone
- EIntravenous ceftriaxone and azithromycin