A 60-year-old man presents to the clinic to discuss the results of an abdominal computed tomography (CT) scan performed for chronic, nonspecific flank pain. The scan incidentally reveals a right adrenal mass with heterogeneous contrast enhancement, irregular borders, and an attenuation of . His blood pressure is and his heart rate is . The physical examination is unremarkable, with no striae, bruising, or central obesity. A comprehensive metabolic panel is within normal limits. Endocrine evaluation demonstrates a normal 1-milligram overnight dexamethasone suppression test, normal fractionated urinary metanephrines, and a normal plasma aldosterone-to-renin ratio. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Surgical resection of the right adrenal glandCevap
- BImage-guided core needle biopsy of the adrenal mass
- CRepeat abdominal imaging with CT scan in 6 to 12 months
- DInitiation of prophylactic glucocorticoid therapy
- EEmpiric initiation of broad-spectrum antibiotic therapy