A 45-year-old woman presents to the clinic for evaluation of abdominal pain and continuous vaginal discharge. She underwent a total laparoscopic hysterectomy for symptomatic uterine fibroids 14 days ago. Her initial postoperative course was uncomplicated, and she was discharged home on the first postoperative day. Over the past 3 days, she has developed progressive right-sided flank pain, mild nausea, and a continuous, clear, watery vaginal discharge. She reports no dysuria, urgency, or frequency, and she is voiding normally in typical volumes. Her temperature is 38.0°C (100.4°F), blood pressure is 120/78 mm Hg, and pulse is 88/min. Physical examination reveals right costovertebral angle tenderness. The abdomen is soft and non-distended. Speculum examination shows clear fluid pooling in the vaginal vault. A vaginal tampon is placed, and 300 mL of normal saline mixed with methylene blue dye is instilled into the bladder via a Foley catheter. The patient ambulates for 15 minutes, after which the tampon is removed. The tampon is saturated with clear fluid but has no blue staining. Which of the following is the most likely etiology of this patient's current presentation?
- Ischemic necrosis of the distal ureterCevap
- BDirect suture incorporation of the bladder dome
- CAcute polymicrobial infection of the vaginal cuff
- DComplete mechanical ligation of the right ureter
- EAdhesion-related partial small bowel obstruction