A -year-old left-handed man presents to the cardiology clinic complaining of recurrent chest pain. He describes the pain as a severe, pressure-like sensation that reliably occurs when he plays tennis or performs strenuous overhead activities with his left arm. The pain completely resolves within minutes of rest. Interestingly, he reports that he can walk on a treadmill for minutes without experiencing any chest discomfort. His past medical history is significant for peripheral artery disease, tobacco use disorder, and severe coronary artery disease. He underwent coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) months ago, receiving a left internal mammary artery (LIMA) graft to the left anterior descending (LAD) artery and a saphenous vein graft to the right coronary artery.
Vital signs include a heart rate of /min. Blood pressure is mmHg in the right arm and mmHg in the left arm. Physical examination reveals a distinct bruit auscultated over the left supraclavicular fossa. An electrocardiogram obtained during an episode of pain shows new ST-segment depressions in the anterior leads, which resolve completely after rest.
Which of the following is the most appropriate definitive management for this patient's underlying condition?
- Endovascular stenting of the left subclavian arteryCevap
- BReoperative coronary artery bypass grafting to the left anterior descending artery
- CEscalation of antianginal therapy with a long-acting nitrate
- DEndarterectomy of the left internal carotid artery
- ESurgical ligation of the left vertebral artery