A 65-year-old man is evaluated in the hospital on day 4 of admission for infective endocarditis. He initially presented with a 2-week history of fatigue, low-grade fever, and a new holosystolic murmur at the cardiac apex. A transthoracic echocardiogram obtained on admission demonstrated a -cm vegetation on the posterior leaflet of the mitral valve with moderate mitral regurgitation. Empiric therapy with intravenous vancomycin and ceftriaxone was initiated. Today, final blood culture results from admission show growth of *Streptococcus gallolyticus* (formerly *Streptococcus bovis*) in all four bottles. Susceptibility testing confirms the organism is highly susceptible to penicillin (minimum inhibitory concentration g/mL) and ceftriaxone. The patient is currently afebrile and hemodynamically stable. His renal function is normal, and he has no known drug allergies.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- AContinue vancomycin and ceftriaxone, and schedule a colonoscopy
- BDiscontinue ceftriaxone, continue intravenous vancomycin, and schedule a colonoscopy
- Discontinue vancomycin, continue intravenous ceftriaxone, and schedule a colonoscopyCevap
- DContinue vancomycin and ceftriaxone, and schedule a comprehensive dental evaluation
- EDiscontinue ceftriaxone, initiate intravenous daptomycin, and schedule a colonoscopy