A -year-old man is evaluated on postoperative day following an elective anterior resection of the rectum for a malignant mass. Over the past hours, he has developed progressively worsening, severe abdominal pain and altered mental status. His medical history is significant for type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension. His current temperature is (), blood pressure is , pulse is , and respiratory rate is . Physical examination reveals an ill-appearing, diaphoretic patient. The abdomen is distended, tense, and diffusely tender to palpation with involuntary guarding and pronounced rebound tenderness. Bowel sounds are absent. The surgical incision shows no signs of erythema or purulent discharge. Laboratory studies demonstrate a leukocyte count of with band forms, and a serum lactate level of . Intravenous fluid resuscitation and broad-spectrum antibiotics are initiated immediately. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Emergent exploratory laparotomyCevap
- BComputed tomography scan of the abdomen and pelvis
- CImage-guided percutaneous drainage
- DContinuation of broad-spectrum antibiotics and fluid resuscitation as sole therapy
- EInsertion of a nasogastric tube and conservative management