A 45-year-old man is evaluated on postoperative day 4 following an elective open cholecystectomy. He complains of increasing pain at the incision site. His temperature is 38.6°C (101.5°F). Examination reveals erythema, induration, and purulent drainage from the surgical wound. The patient is awake, alert, and oriented. A wound swab is sent for culture. During a routine quality assurance review of the patient's chart, it is discovered that the mandated preoperative prophylactic antibiotic was never administered. Upon questioning, the anesthesiologist states they thought the circulating nurse had administered it, while the nurse assumed the anesthesiologist had done so. The attending surgeon is furious and submits a formal request to hospital administration to suspend the circulating nurse for negligence. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Convene a multidisciplinary team to perform a root cause analysis of the preoperative antibiotic protocolCevap
- BPlace a formal reprimand in the circulating nurse's file for failing to ensure medication administration
- CDisclose the medical error to the patient's healthcare proxy to avoid causing the patient unnecessary emotional distress
- DNotify the patient's employer about the hospital-acquired infection to ensure appropriate extension of medical leave
- EReassure the patient that the fever is a normal physiologic response to surgical atelectasis and requires only observation