A -year-old man is evaluated in the hospital for a new-onset fever. He was admitted days ago for an acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, which has significantly improved with intravenous corticosteroids and bronchodilators. A Foley catheter was placed on admission for strict fluid monitoring but was removed hours later. Yesterday, he developed a fever of (), dysuria, and suprapubic tenderness. Urinalysis revealed leukocytes per high-power field and positive leukocyte esterase. He was empirically started on intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam and vancomycin. Today, the patient's fever has resolved, his urinary symptoms are improving, and he is tolerating an oral diet. Blood cultures drawn concurrently have no growth to date. Cardiac examination reveals a regular rate and rhythm with no murmurs. Urine culture from yesterday grows CFU/mL of *Enterococcus faecalis*. Susceptibility testing demonstrates that the isolate is susceptible to ampicillin, vancomycin, and linezolid.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient's infection?
- Transition to oral amoxicillinCevap
- BContinue intravenous vancomycin and discontinue piperacillin-tazobactam
- CTransition to oral linezolid
- DTransition to oral ciprofloxacin
- ETransition to oral cephalexin