A 62-year-old woman is evaluated in the intensive care unit on postoperative day 6 following an exploratory laparotomy for a perforated appendix. She remains intubated and mechanically ventilated. Yesterday, she developed a temperature of (), increased purulent endotracheal secretions, and an increased oxygen requirement. A chest radiograph showed a new right lower lobe consolidation. Empiric intravenous vancomycin and piperacillin-tazobactam were initiated after obtaining blood and bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) cultures.
Today, her temperature is (). Blood pressure is mm Hg and pulse is /min.
| Variable | Value |
|---|---|
| pH | |
| mm Hg | |
| mm Hg | |
| mEq/L |
The BAL culture from yesterday is now growing CFU/mL of *Haemophilus influenzae*. Susceptibility testing indicates the organism is sensitive to ceftriaxone, levofloxacin, and piperacillin-tazobactam. Blood cultures show no growth.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Discontinue vancomycin and piperacillin-tazobactam and initiate intravenous ceftriaxoneCevap
- BContinue the current regimen of vancomycin and piperacillin-tazobactam
- CIncrease the minute ventilation to compensate for a primary metabolic acidosis
- DAdminister intravenous furosemide to treat suspected pulmonary edema
- EPerform a lower extremity venous Doppler ultrasound to evaluate for deep vein thrombosis