A 62-year-old woman is evaluated during morning rounds on the surgical ward. She was admitted 48 hours ago for management of a small bowel obstruction secondary to adhesions from a prior total abdominal hysterectomy. Initial management included bowel rest, intravenous fluid resuscitation, and nasogastric tube decompression. Over the last few hours, she reports that her previously intermittent, crampy abdominal pain has become unremitting, constant, and more severe. She has not had any bowel movements or passed flatus since admission. Her temperature is 38.3°C (100.9°F), blood pressure is 112/74 mmHg, pulse is 116/min, and respirations are 20/min. Physical examination reveals a distended abdomen with hypoactive bowel sounds. There is focal, severe tenderness with involuntary muscle spasm in the periumbilical region. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of 15,400/mm³ and a serum bicarbonate level of 16 mEq/L. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- AEnteral administration of a hyperosmolar radiopaque contrast agent
- BRepeat tomographic imaging of the abdomen and pelvis with intravenous contrast
- CInitiation of broad-spectrum intravenous antimicrobial therapy and continued clinical observation
- Urgent surgical explorationCevap
- EPercutaneous mesenteric endovascular angiography