A 28-year-old nulligravid woman presents to the clinic with a 4-month history of rapidly worsening facial hair growth, deepening of her voice, and male-pattern baldness. She has not had a menstrual period for the past 5 months. Previously, her menses were regular, occurring every 28 days. Her body mass index is 23 kg/m2. Vital signs are within normal limits. Pelvic examination reveals clitoromegaly and a normal-sized, non-tender uterus. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- AClinical diagnosis of polycystic ovary syndrome and initiation of oral contraceptives
- BMeasurement of serum thyroid-stimulating hormone and prolactin levels
- Measurement of serum testosterone and dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate levelsCevap
- DEndometrial biopsy to evaluate for endometrial hyperplasia
- EReassurance that these are normal physiological changes of hormone fluctuation
Cevap
Measurement of serum testosterone and dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate (DHEAS) levels.
The correct next step is evaluating serum androgen levels. Rapid-onset virilization (clitoromegaly, voice deepening, male-pattern baldness) over a short period of time is a classic red flag for an androgen-secreting tumor. Measuring testosterone (which is typically elevated in ovarian tumors) and dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate (which is exclusively produced by the adrenal glands and elevated in adrenal tumors) is necessary to confirm the hyperandrogenic state and localize the source before pursuing targeted imaging.
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Anahtar Kavram
Rapid-onset hyperandrogenism with signs of virilization (clitoromegaly, voice deepening) requires immediate evaluation for an androgen-secreting tumor of the ovary or adrenal gland by measuring testosterone and DHEAS levels.