A 72-year-old man is evaluated in the hospital on day 3 of admission for community-acquired pneumonia. He initially presented to the emergency department with a 2-day history of fever, productive cough, and shortness of breath. His medical history is significant for hypertension and mild chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. On admission, his temperature was (), blood pressure was , pulse was , and respiratory rate was . Oxygen saturation was on room air. Chest radiography revealed a right lower lobe consolidation. He was empirically started on intravenous ceftriaxone and intravenous azithromycin. Today, the patient is afebrile, his pulse is , and his respiratory rate is . He is resting comfortably and eating a regular diet. Blood cultures drawn on admission are now growing *Streptococcus pneumoniae*. Susceptibility testing shows the organism is highly susceptible to penicillin, amoxicillin, ceftriaxone, and levofloxacin, but resistant to azithromycin. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in antibiotic management?
- Discontinue current antibiotics and begin oral amoxicillinCevap
- BDiscontinue current antibiotics and begin oral levofloxacin
- CDiscontinue current antibiotics and begin oral amoxicillin-clavulanate
- DContinue intravenous ceftriaxone and discontinue intravenous azithromycin
- EContinue intravenous ceftriaxone and intravenous azithromycin