A 27-year-old woman is seen at a primary care clinic for a 3-week history of overwhelming sadness, excessive daytime sleepiness, and a complete loss of interest in her usual hobbies. She is accompanied to the waiting area by her husband, but she insists on speaking with the physician privately, stating, "Please do not tell my husband anything about my mental health; he is highly critical and will not understand." Review of her medical record reveals a psychiatric hospitalization three years ago for a 7-day episode of severe agitation, euphoric mood, near-total lack of sleep, and delusions of possessing telepathic abilities. She was stabilized and discharged but has not taken any prescription medications since. Currently, she reports taking St. John's wort daily to manage her low mood. Which of the following are appropriate actions for the physician to take? (Select all that apply)
- APrescription of escitalopram as a sole pharmacological intervention
- Initiation of cariprazine therapyCevap
- Refusal to disclose the patient's psychiatric evaluation details to her husbandCevap
- DInitiation of selegiline while she continues her current herbal supplement
- EDiagnosis of her prior 7-day episode as schizophreniform disorder