During a hospital observation, an 82-year-old male with a history of moderate chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and diet-controlled hypertension is receiving a blood transfusion. He was admitted earlier today for severe fatigue and was found to have a hemoglobin level of due to suspected chronic gastrointestinal blood loss. While receiving his second unit of packed red blood cells, he suddenly develops worsening shortness of breath and a dry cough. His blood pressure is , pulse is , and respiratory rate is . Oxygen saturation is on room air. Physical examination reveals distended neck veins and bilateral crackles at the lung bases. There is no fever, rash, or wheezing. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Administer intravenous furosemideCevap
- BAdminister inhaled albuterol and ipratropium
- CStop the transfusion and administer a bolus of intravenous normal saline
- DTransfer the patient to radiology for a computed tomography pulmonary angiogram
- EInitiate empiric treatment with intravenous vancomycin and cefepime