A 64-year-old man is evaluated on the medical ward on hospital day 3. He was initially admitted for a two-day history of productive cough, right-sided pleuritic chest pain, and fever. At the time of admission, his temperature was 38.9°C (102.0°F), and a chest radiograph revealed a right lower lobe consolidation. He was started on empiric intravenous ceftriaxone and azithromycin.
Today, the patient reports feeling much better and asks when he can be discharged. He is tolerating his meals without difficulty.
Vital signs are:
Temperature: 37.2°C (99.0°F)
Blood pressure: 128/82 mm Hg
Pulse: 84/min
Respirations: 16/min
Oxygen saturation: 96% on room air
Physical examination reveals diminished crackles at the right lung base, which are significantly improved compared to admission.
A sputum culture obtained on admission has grown Streptococcus pneumoniae. Susceptibility testing results are as follows:
Penicillin: Susceptible
Amoxicillin: Susceptible
Ceftriaxone: Susceptible
Levofloxacin: Susceptible
Azithromycin: Resistant
Which of the following is the most appropriate modification to this patient's antimicrobial therapy?
- ADiscontinue current antibiotics and start oral amoxicillin-clavulanate
- BContinue the current regimen of intravenous ceftriaxone and azithromycin
- Discontinue current antibiotics and start oral amoxicillinCevap
- DDiscontinue current antibiotics and start oral levofloxacin
- EDiscontinue azithromycin and complete the course with intravenous ceftriaxone