A -year-old woman is evaluated in the emergency department for severe nausea, vomiting, diffuse muscle aches, and profound restlessness. She has a history of severe opioid use disorder. For the past three years, she has been maintained on a daily dose of of methadone. Two days ago, her physician decided to transition her to sublingual buprenorphine-naloxone to provide more flexible outpatient management. She was instructed to wait until she felt withdrawal symptoms before taking her first dose. She took her last dose of methadone approximately hours ago. One hour ago, she took her first prescribed dose of sublingual buprenorphine-naloxone. Vital signs show a temperature of (), blood pressure of , pulse of , and respirations of . Physical examination reveals dilated pupils, excessive lacrimation, rhinorrhea, and piloerection. The patient's skin is clammy, and she is visibly shivering. She reports, "I thought this new medication was supposed to help, but I feel worse than I ever have." Which of the following is the most likely primary mechanism responsible for this patient's acute symptom presentation?
- Displacement of a full agonist by a partial agonist with higher receptor affinityCevap
- BSystemic absorption of an opioid receptor antagonist through the sublingual mucosa
- CUncoupling of the mu-opioid receptor from its associated G-proteins due to rapid tolerance
- DRebound sympathetic discharge secondary to spontaneous clearance of a long-acting opioid
- ESynergistic activation of central serotonergic pathways leading to autonomic instability