A 34-year-old previously healthy man presents to the outpatient clinic complaining of a painful swelling on his right posterior thigh that began 3 days ago. He has no significant past medical history and takes no medications. His temperature is 37.0°C (98.6°F), blood pressure is 122/78 mmHg, pulse is 76/min, and respiratory rate is 14/min. Physical examination reveals a 2.5-cm, exquisitely tender, fluctuant, erythematous nodule. There is less than 1 cm of surrounding erythema and no regional lymphadenopathy. A point-of-care ultrasound confirms a localized fluid collection with no deep tissue tracking. The physician performs an uncomplicated bedside incision and drainage, yielding approximately 10 mL of opaque, yellow purulent material. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Local wound care without systemic antimicrobial therapyCevap
- BA 5-day course of oral cephalexin
- CA 5-day course of oral trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
- DA 7-day course of oral clindamycin
- EA single dose of intravenous vancomycin prior to discharge