A 68-year-old man is evaluated in the surgical telemetry unit due to sudden-onset severe dyspnea. Two days ago, he underwent an open repair of a large, incarcerated ventral hernia. His medical history includes hypertension, obesity, and a 40-pack-year smoking history. Since the surgery, the patient has had severe incisional pain that has limited his mobility and deep breathing exercises despite the use of opioid analgesia. Vital signs show a temperature of 37.8°C (100.0°F), blood pressure of 138/86 mmHg, pulse of 118/min, and respiratory rate of 28/min. Pulse oximetry is 87% on room air. The patient appears anxious and is using accessory muscles of respiration. Neck examination reveals the trachea is deviated toward the right. Pulmonary examination demonstrates absent breath sounds and dullness to percussion over the entire right hemithorax. The cardiac apical impulse is palpated near the right sternal border. The surgical incision is clean and intact. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Chest physiotherapy and directed coughingCevap
- BNeedle thoracostomy in the right second intercostal space
- CComputed tomography angiography of the chest
- DEmpiric intravenous broad-spectrum antibiotic therapy
- EIntravenous furosemide administration