A -year-old man is evaluated on the surgical ward for a new-onset fever. He is currently on postoperative day following an elective open lower anterior resection for rectal adenocarcinoma. His medical history is significant for hypertension and type diabetes mellitus. His temperature is (), blood pressure is , pulse is , and respirations are . Oxygen saturation is on room air. The patient reports mild, well-controlled pain at his surgical site but notes a new onset of burning with urination and a sensation of incomplete bladder emptying. His indwelling urinary catheter was removed hours ago. Physical examination shows a soft, non-distended abdomen with normal active bowel sounds. The surgical incision is clean, dry, and intact without erythema, induration, or purulent drainage. Lung fields are clear to auscultation bilaterally. The calves are soft and non-tender. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Obtain a urinalysis and urine cultureCevap
- BOrder a portable chest radiograph
- CInitiate empiric intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam
- DPerform lower extremity venous duplex ultrasonography
- EObtain a computed tomography scan of the abdomen and pelvis