A 38-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her husband due to a 2-day history of progressive, ascending muscle weakness and difficulty breathing. She also reports palpitations. She has a 5-year history of severe dry eyes, a persistent sensation of "cotton mouth," and recurrent bilateral parotid gland swelling. Her only daily medication is artificial tears.
Physical examination reveals a respiratory rate of 28/min, heart rate of 115/min, and blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg. She is using accessory muscles of respiration. Neurologic examination shows 2/5 motor strength in her proximal lower and upper extremities, and globally diminished deep tendon reflexes.
Laboratory studies show:
Sodium: 140 mEq/L
Potassium: 1.8 mEq/L
Chloride: 118 mEq/L
Bicarbonate: 10 mEq/L
Arterial blood gas on room air:
pH: 7.22
: 38 mmHg
: 85 mmHg
Endocrine studies obtained due to her profound weakness show a TSH of 0.2 (Normal: 0.4-4.0) and Free T4 of 0.6 ng/dL (Normal: 0.8-1.8).
Urinalysis shows a pH of 6.5 and 15 WBC/hpf. A urine culture obtained at an urgent care clinic two days ago is now resulting, showing >100,000 CFU/mL of *Escherichia coli* that is sensitive to nitrofurantoin, cephalexin, and trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole.
Which of the following is the most accurate interpretation of this patient's current condition and the most appropriate initial management step?
- Non-anion gap metabolic acidosis with superimposed respiratory acidosis; immediately initiate intravenous potassium chloride.Cevap
- BCompensated non-anion gap metabolic acidosis; immediately initiate intravenous sodium bicarbonate.
- CPrimary hypothyroidism precipitating myxedema coma; immediately initiate intravenous levothyroxine.
- DSeptic shock secondary to complicated urosepsis; immediately initiate intravenous meropenem.
- EAcute decompensated heart failure; immediately initiate intravenous furosemide and non-invasive positive pressure ventilation.