A 24-year-old man comes to the clinic due to a sore on his penis that he noticed 5 days ago. He reports no pain, itching, or penile discharge. He is sexually active with a new male partner and does not use condoms consistently. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination reveals a single, 1.5-cm, sharply circumscribed, indurated, and painless ulcer on the penile shaft. Bilateral, non-tender inguinal lymphadenopathy is present. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy for this patient?
- AIntramuscular ceftriaxone
- BOral acyclovir
- Intramuscular benzathine penicillin GCevap
- DOral azithromycin
- EIntravenous aqueous penicillin G
Cevap
Intramuscular benzathine penicillin G
The patient's painless, indurated genital ulcer with non-tender inguinal lymphadenopathy is the classic presentation of a primary syphilitic chancre, caused by the spirochete Treponema pallidum. The most appropriate first-line treatment for primary, secondary, and early latent syphilis is a single dose of intramuscular benzathine penicillin G.
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Anahtar Kavram
The hallmark of primary syphilis is a painless, indurated genital chancre, and the standard first-line treatment is a single dose of intramuscular benzathine penicillin G.
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