A 37-year-old man comes to the psychiatrist complaining of feeling "completely empty" for the past 2 months. He reports that he has lost interest in his architectural work, which he usually loves, and struggles to get out of bed before noon. His appetite has decreased, leading to an 8-lb (3.6-kg) weight loss. He expresses intense guilt over a minor calculation mistake he made on a project a year ago. A review of his past medical records reveals an emergency department visit 3 years ago for acute agitation. During that visit, he was speaking so quickly he was difficult to understand, claimed he had discovered the secret to limitless energy, and had not slept in 5 days. He was stabilized on a medication that he subsequently stopped taking because he felt it blunted his creativity. His vital signs and physical examination today are unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the pharmacologic management of this patient's current symptoms?
- ASertraline therapy
- BHaloperidol therapy
- Lurasidone therapyCevap
- DVenlafaxine therapy
- EFluoxetine and phenelzine combination therapy