A 27-year-old woman presents to the outpatient clinic with a 3-day history of progressively worsening right-sided breast pain, swelling, and fever. She delivered her first child via uncomplicated cesarean delivery 4 weeks ago and has been exclusively breastfeeding. Her temperature is 38.6°C (101.5°F), blood pressure is 112/72 mmHg, and pulse is 98/min. Physical examination of the right breast reveals a 5-cm area of marked erythema, warmth, and induration in the upper outer quadrant. Careful palpation over this area reveals a distinct, tender, fluctuant mass. There is no overlying skin necrosis, and no axillary lymphadenopathy is appreciated. Pelvic examination is unremarkable, and the cesarean incision site is clean, dry, and well-healed. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- AContinuation of breastfeeding and oral cephalexin monotherapy
- BHospital admission for intravenous vancomycin and piperacillin-tazobactam
- CPelvic ultrasound and initiation of intravenous clindamycin and gentamicin
- Image-guided fluid aspiration and targeted oral antibioticsCevap
- EImmediate cessation of breastfeeding and application of a tight supportive bra