A 62-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by emergency medical services due to sudden, severe, and tearing anterior chest pain that radiates to his back. The pain started 45 minutes ago while he was mowing the lawn. His medical history is significant for long-standing, poorly controlled hypertension. Upon arrival, he appears diaphoretic and in severe distress. Vital signs are temperature 37.1°C (98.8°F), blood pressure 86/50 mm Hg, pulse 118/min, and respiratory rate 22/min. Physical examination reveals distended neck veins. Lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally. Heart sounds are muffled, and there is a faint early diastolic murmur appreciated at the right upper sternal border. Extremities are cool to the touch, with delayed capillary refill. A bedside focused assessment with sonography for trauma (FAST) reveals a large pericardial effusion with early diastolic collapse of the right ventricle, as well as an intimal flap in the ascending aorta.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Emergent surgical repairCevap
- BComputed tomography angiography of the chest
- CUltrasound-guided pericardiocentesis
- DIntravenous esmolol infusion
- EThrombolytic therapy with alteplase