Emergency medical personnel transport a -year-old male to the hospital shortly after he experienced the sudden onset of severe, crushing retrosternal chest pain. The pain began while he was resting and is accompanied by profound diaphoresis. His medical history includes type 2 diabetes mellitus, hyperlipidemia, and a pack-year smoking history. Upon arrival, he appears pale and lethargic. Vital signs demonstrate a blood pressure of mmHg and a heart rate of /min. Physical examination reveals prominent distention of the jugular veins when the patient is positioned at a angle. Auscultation of the chest demonstrates completely clear lung fields bilaterally. Cardiac auscultation reveals bradycardia but no murmurs, rubs, or gallops. An electrocardiogram is rapidly obtained and shows -mm ST-segment elevations in leads II, III, and aVF, along with reciprocal ST-segment depressions in leads I and aVL. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial intervention to address this patient's hemodynamic state?
- Rapid infusion of isotonic salineCevap
- BIntravenous injection of furosemide
- CSublingual application of nitroglycerin
- DBolus dose of intravenous metoprolol
- EPrompt endotracheal intubation