A 74-year-old man is evaluated on the inpatient medical ward due to the sudden onset of severe shortness of breath and a dry cough. He was admitted ago for symptomatic anemia secondary to newly diagnosed myelodysplastic syndrome. His past medical history is significant for ischemic cardiomyopathy with a left ventricular ejection fraction of , type 2 diabetes mellitus, and a 40-pack-year smoking history. The patient is currently into a transfusion of his second unit of packed red blood cells (PRBCs). His temperature is (), heart rate is , respiratory rate is , and blood pressure is . Pulse oximetry shows an oxygen saturation of on room air. The patient is in acute respiratory distress and is using accessory muscles of respiration. Jugular venous pulsation is visible at . Lung auscultation reveals bilateral crackles halfway up the posterior lung fields and scattered expiratory wheezes. Cardiac examination reveals a regular tachycardia with a prominent gallop. There is no skin rash or urticaria. Arterial blood gas on room air shows a pH of , of , and of . Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Discontinue the transfusion and administer intravenous furosemideCevap
- BDiscontinue the transfusion and administer nebulized albuterol with intravenous methylprednisolone
- CDiscontinue the transfusion, obtain blood cultures, and administer intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam
- DDiscontinue the transfusion and administer a continuous intravenous sodium bicarbonate infusion
- EDiscontinue the transfusion and contact the blood donor directly to investigate for transmissible pathogens