A 26-year-old woman is evaluated in the outpatient clinic for emotional instability. She reports a long history of chronic feelings of emptiness, recurrent superficial self-harm, and frantic efforts to prevent her friends from abandoning her. She states that her mood frequently shifts from intense sadness to rage, often multiple times within the same day based on minor perceived slights. The patient is currently prescribed fluoxetine for depressive symptoms but demands an immediate switch to phenelzine, a medication she read about online. When the physician hesitates, she becomes intensely angry and devalues the physician's competence. Which of the following statements regarding this patient's diagnosis and management are accurate? (Select 3)
- The patient's presentation is most consistent with borderline personality disorder.Cevap
- Dialectical behavior therapy is the most appropriate long-term psychotherapeutic intervention.Cevap
- Immediate initiation of the requested medication risks precipitating serotonin syndrome.Cevap
- DThe patient's brief mood shifts indicate bipolar depression, which is appropriately managed with SSRI monotherapy.
- EFluoxetine should be abruptly discontinued to allow starting the monoamine oxidase inhibitor tomorrow.
- FThe patient should be diagnosed with a brief psychotic disorder due to the rapidly shifting nature of her symptoms.