A 62-year-old male presents to the emergency department six days after undergoing an elective open umbilical hernia repair with mesh. He reports a new onset of severe, throbbing pain at the surgical site that began yesterday, accompanied by subjective chills. His medical history includes type 2 diabetes mellitus, obesity, and chronic venous insufficiency characterized by long-standing, stable bilateral ankle edema. Vital signs upon triage are temperature 38.8°C (101.8°F), blood pressure 130/82 mm Hg, pulse 102/min, and respirations 16/min. Oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Cardiopulmonary auscultation reveals clear breath sounds bilaterally without crackles or wheezes. Abdominal examination demonstrates a 5-cm area of marked erythema and induration surrounding the incision, along with a palpable fluctuant mass deep to the suture line. Purulent fluid is actively weeping from the central portion of the wound. Which of the following are the most appropriate immediate next steps in the management of this patient? (Select exactly 2)
- Bedside opening of the incision to allow for drainage and debridementCevap
- Initiation of targeted antimicrobial therapy covering Gram-positive cocciCevap
- CEmpiric administration of broad-spectrum therapy with meropenem and amikacin
- DIntravenous administration of a loop diuretic
- EVenous duplex ultrasound of the lower extremities