A 74-year-old female is transported to the acute care unit from a skilled nursing facility after staff noted her vomiting dark, foul-smelling fluid for the last day. The patient has advanced Alzheimer disease and cannot provide a meaningful history. Her past medical records indicate no prior intra-abdominal procedures. Vital signs show a temperature of (), pulse of /min, and blood pressure of mmHg. Abdominal assessment demonstrates marked distension with generalized tenderness to palpation. A prominent, firm, -cm swelling is identified in the right groin, situated medial to the femoral vein and inferior to the inguinal ligament. The skin over this area appears dusky and is warm to the touch. Complete blood count reveals a leukocyte level of /mm with a left shift. Serum lactate is mmol/L. Supine and upright plain films reveal centrally located, dilated loops of small intestine with prominent air-fluid levels and absent gas in the rectum. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- ANasogastric intubation and serial abdominal examinations
- BComputed tomography of the abdomen and pelvis with intravenous contrast
- Immediate operative explorationCevap
- DBedside manual reduction of the groin mass
- EUpper gastrointestinal endoscopy