A 62-year-old man is evaluated in the hospital due to rapidly worsening mental status. He was admitted three days ago for complicated cellulitis of the right lower extremity and was started on intravenous linezolid. His past medical history is significant for major depressive disorder, for which he has taken fluoxetine for several years. Today, he developed sudden-onset severe agitation, restlessness, and confusion. His temperature is 39.2°C (102.6°F), blood pressure is 165/100 mmHg, pulse is 124/min, and respirations are 22/min. Physical examination demonstrates excessive diaphoresis and shivering. Neurological examination reveals prominent hyperreflexia and inducible ankle clonus bilaterally in the lower extremities. Initial management with intravenous normal saline, cooling blankets, and intravenous lorazepam does not sufficiently control his severe symptoms. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in pharmacologic management?
- Administer cyproheptadineCevap
- BAdminister dantrolene
- CAdminister bromocriptine
- DAdminister benztropine
- EAdminister physostigmine