During a preoperative assessment, a 74-year-old male is reviewed by the surgical team three days before an elective left total hip arthroplasty. He has longstanding osteoarthritis, diet-controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus, and mild benign prostatic hyperplasia. The patient feels well and explicitly denies any current urinary urgency, dysuria, increased frequency, or flank discomfort. His temperature is 37.0°C (98.6°F), blood pressure is 132/84 mmHg, and heart rate is 76/min. Aside from left hip stiffness and an antalgic gait, the physical examination is unremarkable.
Laboratory investigations are obtained as part of standard preoperative protocols. A midstream urine sample shows 18 leukocytes/hpf, positive leukocyte esterase, and negative nitrites. A reflex urine culture subsequently isolates CFU/mL of Extended-Spectrum Beta-Lactamase (ESBL)-producing *Escherichia coli*. The isolate is resistant to ceftriaxone, ciprofloxacin, and trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, but retains susceptibility to meropenem, nitrofurantoin, and fosfomycin.
Based on these findings, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient's urinary findings?
- Proceed with the scheduled surgery without targeted urinary antimicrobial therapyCevap
- BPrescribe a preoperative course of oral fosfomycin
- CPrescribe a preoperative course of oral nitrofurantoin
- DAdminister intravenous meropenem during perioperative surgical prophylaxis
- EDelay the arthroplasty until a repeat urine culture is sterile