A -year-old nulligravid woman comes to the clinic due to worsening lower abdominal pain and a new, foul-smelling vaginal discharge over the past days. She has a copper intrauterine device (IUD) that was inserted three years ago. She recently became sexually active with a new male partner. Her temperature is (), blood pressure is , and pulse is . Speculum examination shows a yellow, mucopurulent discharge exuding from the cervical os, and the IUD strings are clearly visible in the vaginal vault. Bimanual examination reveals pronounced cervical motion tenderness and bilateral adnexal tenderness. There are no palpable adnexal masses, and a pelvic ultrasound is unremarkable aside from a properly positioned intrauterine device. A urine pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- ARemove the intrauterine device and prescribe intramuscular ceftriaxone, oral doxycycline, and oral metronidazole
- BLeave the intrauterine device in place and prescribe intramuscular ceftriaxone and a single dose of oral azithromycin
- Leave the intrauterine device in place and prescribe intramuscular ceftriaxone, oral doxycycline, and oral metronidazoleCevap
- DRemove the intrauterine device and admit the patient for intravenous cefoxitin and intravenous doxycycline
- ELeave the intrauterine device in place and prescribe oral ciprofloxacin and oral metronidazole