Following a two-day history of escalating groin discomfort, a 54-year-old male with poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus arrives at the emergency department. His spouse notes he has been increasingly lethargic and shivering since this morning. Vital signs demonstrate a temperature of (), pulse of , and blood pressure of . Genitourinary examination reveals significant edema, poorly defined erythema, and a putrid odor emanating from the perineum. There is palpable crepitus extending from the base of the scrotum to the perianal region. Initial laboratory analysis yields a leukocyte count of with bands. Fluid resuscitation is currently underway. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- AComputed tomography of the abdomen and pelvis
- BInitiation of intravenous broad-spectrum antibiotics and close observation
- Immediate surgical exploration and debridementCevap
- DScrotal ultrasonography with color Doppler
- ETransfer for hyperbaric oxygen therapy