A 72-year-old woman is evaluated on hospital day 3. She was initially admitted for progressively worsening shortness of breath and bilateral lower extremity swelling. Her medical history is significant for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and essential hypertension. On admission, she was afebrile, with a blood pressure of mmHg, heart rate of /min, and respiratory rate of /min. Physical examination revealed jugular venous distention, bibasilar crackles, and scattered expiratory wheezing. An indwelling urinary catheter was placed to strictly monitor fluid output, and intravenous furosemide was initiated. Over the last hours, she has had excellent diuresis resulting in a -kg (-lb) weight loss, and her dyspnea has completely resolved. She currently breathes comfortably on room air. A urine culture sent on admission due to a cloudy appearance now grows CFU/mL of *Escherichia coli*. The patient reports no suprapubic pain, flank pain, or dysuria. Her current temperature is C ( F). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Remove the indwelling urinary catheter and observeCevap
- BInitiate targeted antimicrobial therapy with oral ciprofloxacin
- CAdminister systemic corticosteroids and oral azithromycin
- DObtain an arterial blood gas to calculate respiratory compensation
- EMeasure serum thyroid-stimulating hormone and free T4 levels