An otherwise healthy 42-year-old male is evaluated in the ambulatory care center due to a painful swelling on his right thigh. The lesion has been progressively enlarging over the past three days. He takes no medications and has no significant past medical history. Vital signs demonstrate a temperature of 37.1°C (98.8°F), blood pressure of 122/78 mm Hg, and a heart rate of 74/min. Physical examination of the right anterior thigh reveals a 3-cm, highly tender, fluctuant, erythematous nodule with a central purulent punctum. There is no significant surrounding induration, and no regional lymphadenopathy is appreciated. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Incision and drainage onlyCevap
- BIncision and drainage followed by oral clindamycin
- CIncision and drainage followed by intravenous vancomycin
- DOral dicloxacillin monotherapy
- ETopical mupirocin application
Cevap
Incision and drainage only
The correct approach is incision and drainage only. The patient presents with a simple, uncomplicated cutaneous abscess, characterized by a fluctuant, tender nodule with a purulent center. In an otherwise healthy, immunocompetent patient with a single small abscess (typically <5 cm), no systemic signs of infection (such as fever or tachycardia), and minimal surrounding cellulitis, the definitive treatment is mechanical source control. Incision and drainage alone provides excellent cure rates. Systemic antibiotics are not indicated in this scenario.
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Anahtar Kavram
Management of uncomplicated cutaneous abscesses