A 54-year-old woman comes to the primary care clinic for an annual health maintenance examination. She has a history of a heart transplant 3 years ago for nonischemic cardiomyopathy and is currently maintained on a regimen of tacrolimus, mycophenolate mofetil, and low-dose prednisone. Her last menstrual period occurred at age 50. During the review of systems, she mentions noticing a small amount of pinkish vaginal spotting on her toilet tissue yesterday, which she assumes is due to vaginal dryness. She has never smoked and consumes alcohol socially. Her last screening mammogram was at age 52, and her last colonoscopy was at age 48; both were normal. She has not received any vaccinations since prior to her transplant. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination reveals a well-healed median sternotomy scar but is otherwise unremarkable. Which of the following combinations represents the most appropriate management plan for this patient today?
- Endometrial biopsy, screening mammography, and administration of the recombinant zoster vaccineCevap
- BReassurance for likely atrophic vaginitis, screening mammography, and administration of the recombinant zoster vaccine
- CEndometrial biopsy, screening mammography, and administration of the live-attenuated varicella vaccine
- DPrescription of topical vaginal estrogen, repeat colonoscopy, and administration of the 20-valent pneumococcal conjugate vaccine
- ETransvaginal ultrasound, screening breast magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), and administration of the live-attenuated influenza vaccine