A 35-year-old previously healthy gentleman arrives at the triage desk reporting severe, unremitting abdominal pain accompanied by multiple episodes of bilious vomiting over the past 12 hours. He has not had a bowel movement or passed flatus since the pain began. His temperature is 38.6°C (101.5°F), pulse is 118/min, and blood pressure is 98/60 mm Hg. Physical examination reveals a markedly distended abdomen with absent bowel sounds. Palpation of the groin demonstrates a 4-cm, firm, erythematous, and exquisitely tender bulge in the right inguinal region. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of 19,000/mm³ with 85% neutrophils and a serum lactate level of 4.2 mmol/L. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Immediate operative interventionCevap
- BInsertion of a gastric drainage tube and intravenous hydration
- CBedside manual reduction of the inguinal mass
- DAbdominopelvic imaging with intravenous contrast
- EAdministration of intravenous antibiotics and serial abdominal examinations