A 54-year-old man comes to the office due to worsening redness and swelling of his left lower leg over the past 48 hours. He reports no fever, chills, or systemic symptoms. His medical history includes hypertension and diet-controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus. Vital signs show a temperature of 37.2°C (99.0°F), blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg, and heart rate of 78/min. Physical examination of the left lower extremity reveals a 10-cm area of poorly demarcated erythema, warmth, and tenderness over the anterior shin. There is no fluctuance, purulent drainage, or palpable fluid collection. Which of the following is the most appropriate antibiotic therapy?
- Oral cephalexinCevap
- BOral ciprofloxacin
- COral trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
- DIntravenous vancomycin
- ETopical mupirocin
Cevap
Oral cephalexin
The patient presents with classic signs of mild, non-purulent cellulitis (poorly demarcated erythema, warmth, tenderness) without systemic toxicity or signs of an abscess (no fluctuance or purulence). The most common pathogens responsible for non-purulent cellulitis are beta-hemolytic streptococci (e.g., Streptococcus pyogenes) and methicillin-susceptible Staphylococcus aureus (MSSA). Oral cephalexin (a first-generation cephalosporin) provides excellent targeted coverage for these organisms and is a standard first-line treatment for uncomplicated cases.
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Mild, non-purulent cellulitis is primarily caused by beta-hemolytic streptococci and should be treated with targeted, narrow-spectrum oral antibiotics such as cephalexin, dicloxacillin, or penicillin.