A -year-old man is brought to the emergency department complaining of sudden, severe left flank pain that began two hours ago. He also reports a brief episode of lightheadedness just prior to arrival. His medical history is significant for essential hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and a -pack-year smoking history. Initially, his temperature is (), pulse is , blood pressure is , and respirations are . Physical examination reveals a palpable, slightly tender, pulsatile mass in the periumbilical region. A focused assessment with sonography for trauma (FAST) demonstrates a dilation of the infrarenal abdominal aorta and free fluid in the hepatorenal recess. Ten minutes later, the patient becomes progressively lethargic; his repeat blood pressure is , and his pulse is . Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- ACross-sectional imaging of the abdomen with intravenous contrast
- Proceed directly with operative or endovascular aortic repairCevap
- CInsertion of a gastric drainage tube and serial clinical observation
- DAdministration of rapid-acting intravenous diuretics and noninvasive ventilation
- EInitiation of fluid resuscitation and empiric broad-spectrum antibiotics