A -year-old male architect is brought to the outpatient psychiatric clinic by his husband. The patient reports a -week history of feeling "profoundly empty," sleeping hours a day, gaining kg ( lbs), and experiencing an inability to concentrate on his design projects. His husband notes that years ago, the patient had a distinct -week period where he slept only hours a night, maxed out several credit cards investing in cryptocurrency, and firmly believed he was communicating telepathically with extraterrestrials. That episode resulted in a -day psychiatric hospitalization. The patient's only current medication is daily omeprazole. His vital signs and physical examination are unremarkable. Which of the following statements regarding the appropriate pharmacological management for this patient are correct? (Select all that apply)
- Lurasidone monotherapy is an appropriate first-line pharmacological intervention for his current mood episode.Cevap
- BFluoxetine monotherapy is the most appropriate initial treatment to rapidly target his hypersomnia and anhedonia.
- If lithium therapy is planned, baseline evaluation must include serum creatinine, urinalysis, and thyroid-stimulating hormone levels.Cevap
- DThe diagnosis of his prior psychiatric episode required a symptom duration of at least one month to distinguish it from a brief psychotic disorder.
- EConcurrent use of a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor and a monoamine oxidase inhibitor is a safe next step if his depression proves treatment-resistant.